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with a runner stealing from first, a line drive is caught. the stealing runner would have easily been doubled up at first BUT the throw back to first goes over the first baseman's head which allowed the runner to get back to first safely instead of being caught in a double play. Should the thrower be charged with an error even though the runner originally on first did not advance a base?

I believe the correct answer is no. If there is an out on the play, and no extra bases occurred due to the overthrow, no error is scored. I will try and post the reference tomorrow.

thanks. i'll await what others have to say. ultimately if that runner comes around to score, would the pitcher be charged with an earned run?
a similar scenario occurs when a foul pop is dropped. in that case the fielder DOES get charged with an error and if the batter ultimately gets on base and scores, his run is not earned and is not charged to the pitcher, I think.

No error. Earned run if runner ultimately scores (assuming no other errors obviously).

It is not an error. You cannot assume a double play when determining errors.

dhardy has the correct and most simple answer......cannot assume a double play.

fmcfish wrote:thanks. i'll await what others have to say. ultimately if that runner comes around to score, would the pitcher be charged with an earned run?
a similar scenario occurs when a foul pop is dropped. in that case the fielder DOES get charged with an error and if the batter ultimately gets on base and scores, his run is not earned and is not charged to the pitcher, I think.

It's really not similar, since if the foul pop had been caught, the batter would have been prevented from getting on base in the first place. In the case of the missed double play, the runner had earned his way on base. Since you can't assume the double play, the runner is still at his "earned" base, so if he scores (with no more errors) it would be an earned run.